Each from an official past paper, labelled with its session. Answer, then read the key and the written explanation, exactly as the app shows them.
At exam speed, 20 questions take 17 minutes.
Questions are shown exactly as worded on the paper. The explanations are ours. No sign-up. We count only visits, starts, finishes and how many go on to choose a pass, never your answers.
The examination of the profile allows us to:
Correct answer: a · Evaluate the convexity of the face
Profile (lateral) examination lets the clinician evaluate facial convexity/concavity, reflecting the underlying skeletal antero-posterior relationship.
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All of the following antibiotics can increase the frequency and severity of bleeding incidents related to vitamin K antagonists except:
Correct answer: c · Amphotericin B
Macrolides, metronidazole, ampicillin and tetracyclines can potentiate vitamin-K-antagonist anticoagulation; amphotericin B does not, so it is the exception.
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The term "Tug Back" is used to indicate:
Correct answer: b · Good fit of master gutta percha point at the apical third
'Tug-back' describes the frictional resistance of a well-fitted master gutta-percha cone in the apical third.
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In order to extract 2nd lower premolar:
Correct answer: e · None of the above
Choice of anaesthetic technique for a lower second premolar depends on the case; no single method is mandatory, so none of the absolute statements is correct.
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A glass fiber post is cemented inside the root canal with the following procedure:
Correct answer: d · b or c
A glass-fibre post is luted with either an etch-and-bond plus dual-cured resin cement or a self-adhesive resin cement — b or c.
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Immediately after the extraction of a tooth, postoperative instructions should include: (1) analgesics. (2) regular diet. (3) application of cold. (4) frequent rinsing of the socket.
Correct answer: b · (1) and (3)
Immediate post-extraction instructions include analgesics and applying cold to limit swelling; vigorous rinsing is avoided early so the clot is preserved — (1) and (3).
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Mouth breathing is considered:
Correct answer: b · Pathological
Habitual mouth breathing is pathological; it can alter facial growth and the dentition and warrants investigation/management.
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Macrophages contained within the periodontium, function as which of the following?
Correct answer: e · All of the above
Periodontal macrophages perform phagocytosis, release tissue-degrading enzymes and help initiate T-cell responses — all of the above.
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A patient comes to your clinic after a trauma with an alveolar fracture at the central incisor, action to be taken:
Correct answer: c · Flexible retainer lasting four weeks
An alveolar (dento-alveolar) fracture is stabilized with a flexible splint for about four weeks to allow bony and periodontal healing.
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Areas of rarefaction are evident on radiographic examination in which of the following:
Correct answer: e · When the cortical layer of bone has been eroded
A periapical radiolucency (rarefaction) becomes visible once the lesion erodes the cortical bone, which is needed for radiographic detection.
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Localization of the source of dental pain is a challenge in case of:
Correct answer: a · Acute irreversible pulpitis
Localizing the offending tooth is hardest in acute irreversible pulpitis, because pulpal pain is poorly localized (the pulp lacks proprioceptors) until the periapex is involved.
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Which structure does NOT pass through the parotid gland?
Correct answer: d · internal jugular vein
The internal jugular vein does NOT pass through the parotid; the structures within the gland are the facial nerve, retromandibular vein and external carotid artery.
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Salvaging a failed fixed implant case may lead to implant supported removable partial denture. This includes:
Correct answer: e · All of the above
A fixed implant case may have to be converted to an implant-supported removable denture when implants are poorly positioned, fail to osseointegrate, or components fracture — all of the above.
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Multinucleated giant cells are associated with: (1) plasmocytoma (2) odontogenic myxoma (3) hyperparathyroidism (4) tuberculosis (5) osteoclastoma
Correct answer: d · (3) (4) (5)
Multinucleated giant cells are seen in hyperparathyroidism (brown tumour), tuberculosis (granulomas) and osteoclastoma (giant cell tumour) — (3),(4),(5).
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The principle of saving dental tissues means:
Correct answer: b · Reduce the space sufficient to place the prosthetic element
Tissue conservation means reducing only enough tooth structure to accommodate the prosthetic material, avoiding unnecessary removal.
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Orientation grooves are used to define:
Correct answer: b · The depth of cut in the preparation of a tooth
Depth-orientation grooves are cut to gauge the amount of tooth reduction during preparation, ensuring uniform clearance.
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Palpation of lymph nodes should be done to note:
Correct answer: d · All of the above
Lymph-node palpation assesses enlargement, tenderness, and mobility/consistency to help distinguish inflammatory from neoplastic nodes — all of the above.
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What is the best view to detect a buccal perforation in an anterior tooth in CBCT?
Correct answer: d · Sagittal view
A sagittal CBCT slice best shows a labial/buccal perforation in an anterior tooth, displaying the facial-palatal dimension along the root.
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In comparison with the conventional fabrication the CAD/CAM technology has many advantages such as:
Correct answer: c · time saving
CAD/CAM offers time saving over conventional fabrication (its key advantage), whereas heavy initial cost and a learning curve are drawbacks, so the advantage is time saving (c).
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After the dentist has completed an etching procedure on a Class III composite preparation, the preparation becomes contaminated with saliva. In response, the dentist should do which of the following?
Correct answer: d · Rinse away the saliva with water, dry the preparation with air, then repeat the etching procedure
If an etched preparation is saliva-contaminated, the dentist must rinse, dry, and re-etch, because contamination ruins the etched surface.
To go on, use the button after the explanation, or press the right arrow key.
At exam speed, 20 questions take 17 minutes.
Questions are shown exactly as worded on the paper. The explanations are ours. No sign-up. We count only visits, starts, finishes and how many go on to choose a pass, never your answers.
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